Insights Current Events Quiz – 15 & 16

1. 1. Question

   1 points
   With regard to panchayats in India, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

   1. The governor of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a financial commission to review the financial position of panchayats
   2. The Central Finance Commission shall suggest measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats in the states

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 Only
   •  b) 2 Only
   •  c) Both 1 and 2
   •  d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   Chapter 34, Indian Polity by M Laxmikanth

   http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=134530

2. 2. Question

   1 points
   Ethanol can be produced from which of the following by-products of the sugar production process?

   1. Molasses
   2. Sugarcane tops
   3. Bagasse

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 Only
   •  b) 1 and 2 Only
   •  c) 1 and 3 Only
   •  d) 1,2 and 3
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   “According to Abinash Verma, Director General of ISMA, the increased demand for ethanol does not necessarily have to be met via additional acreage under sugarcane. Some of it can come from sources other than molasses, such as cellulosic ethanol, made from bagasse or sugarcane tops, and some can come from improved farming practices or planting higher-yielding varieties of cane.”

   “Sugarcane tops are one of the main by-products of sugarcane milling. At harvest time, the sugarcane biomass includes millable stalks, tops, dead and dying leaves, stubble and roots. Sugarcane tops represent 15 to 25% of the aerial part of the plant.”

   http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/flex-fuel-policy-of-government-to-curb-pollution-worry-automakers/article8116881.ece

3. 3. Question

   1 points
   The ‘5/20’ rule of the Indian Aviation industry requires

   •  a) a domestic carrier to expand commercial operations to 20 states within 5 years after the launch of domestic flying operations
   •  b) an international carrier to have 5 years flying experience and a fleet of 20 aircraft to fly to Indian destinations
   •  c) a domestic carrier to have 5 years domestic flying experience and a fleet of 20 aircraft to fly on international routes
   •  d) Both b and c
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: b.

   http://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/air-india-changes-stand-on-520-rule-to-allow-private-airlines-to-fly-abroad/article8116892.ece

4. 4. Question

   1 points
   The institution of Chogyal – or the Chogyal monarchy – ruled which former princely state of India?

   •  a) North East Frontier Agency
   •  b) Manipur
   •  c) Tripura
   •  d) Sikkim
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   “In a referendum held in 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for the abolition of the institution of Chogyal and Sikkim became an integral part of India.”

   Chapter 5, Indian Polity 4^th Edition by M Laxmikanth

   http://www.business-standard.com/article/politics/narendra-modi-s-first-visit-to-sikkim-116011800003_1.html

5. 5. Question

   1 points
   With regard to the recently approved ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

   1. For annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%
   2. Farmers will get claim against full sum insured without any reduction
   3. Post-harvest losses coverage, unlike earlier, has been included in this scheme

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 Only
   •  b) 2 Only
   •  c) Both 1 and 2
   •  d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   The highlights of this scheme are as under:

   • There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%. The premium rates to be paid by farmers are very low and balance premium will be paid by the Government to provide full insured amount to the farmers against crop loss on account of natural calamities.
   • There is no upper limit on Government subsidy. Even if balance premium is 90%, it will be borne by the Government.
   • Earlier, there was a provision of capping the premium rate which resulted in low claims being paid to farmers. This capping was done to limit Government outgo on the premium subsidy. This capping has now been removed and farmers will get claim against full sum insured without any reduction.
   • The use of technology will be encouraged to a great extent. Smart phones will be used to capture and upload data of crop cutting to reduce the delays in claim payment to farmers. Remote sensing will be used to reduce the number of crop cutting experiments.

6. 6. Question

   1 points
   Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code is/are associated with “insult to religion”?

   1. 153A
   2. 295
   3. 295A
   4. 124A

   Select the correct answer using codes given below

   •  a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   •  b) 1, 3 and 4 only
   •  c) 3 Only
   •  d) 1, 2 and 4 only
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: a.

   Section 124A of the IPC is the Sedition law.

   Sections 153A, 295 and 295A of the IPC:

   The purpose of the Section 153 A is to punish persons who indulge in wanton vilification or attacks upon the religion, race, place of birth, residence, language etc of any particular group or class or upon the founders and prophets of a religion.

   Section 295 of the I.P.C makes destruction, damage, or defilement of a place of worship or an object held sacred, with intent to insult the religion of a class of persons, punishable with imprisonment which may extend to two years, or with fine , or with both.

   The object of Section 295-A is to punish deliberate and malicious acts intended to outrage the religious feelings of any class by insulating its religion or the religious beliefs.

   http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/freedoms-only-for-the-outraged/article8117718.ece

7. 7. Question

   1 points
   The Someshwara Temple at Somasila, believed to have been originally constructed in the 7th century CE, was built during the time of the Chalukyas. Consider the following statements:

   1. The Chalukyas are credited with the development of the Dravida style of temple architecture
   2. The Chalukyas are also famous for their cave temple architecture

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 Only
   •  b) 2 Only
   •  c) Both 1 and 2
   •  d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   The Chalukyas were great patrons of art. They developed the vesara style in the building of structural temples. However, the vesara style reached its culmination only under the Rashtrakutas and the Hoysalas. The structural temples of the Chalukyas exist at Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal. Cave temple architecture was also famous under the Chalukyas. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik.

   TN Board History Class XI

   http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/a-standing-example-of-conservation-architecture/article8117743.ece

8. 8. Question

   1 points
   Consider the following statements:

   Assertion (A): The human body’s immune system cannot on its own destroy cancer

   Reason (R): Tumor cells destroy T-type White Blood Cells (WBCs) which assist B-type WBCs in production of antibodies

   Which of the above statements is/are true?

   •  a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A
   •  b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A
   •  c) A is incorrect, R is correct
   •  d) A is correct, R is incorrect
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction by immune system. Therefore, the patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as α-interferon which activates their immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.

   T-type leukocytes, which assist B-type leukocytes in production of antibodies, are destroyed/reduce significantly in number when a person is attacked by the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus (HIV).

   Page 156, 158, Biology for Class XII NCERT

   http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/a-unified-front-against-cancer/article8114436.ece

QUIZ – 2016: Insights Current Affairs Quiz- 12

1. 1. Question

   1 points
   Consider the following statements:

   1. It has a sex ratio where the number of women is more than the number of men
   2. Infant Mortality rate is one of the lowest in the country
   3. It is the first ‘Total Primary Education’ attained state

   The above statements, when considered as a whole, refer to which state of India?

   •  a) Meghalaya
   •  b) Goa
   •  c) Sikkim
   •  d) Kerala
   
   

   Ans: d.

   http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=134449

2. 2. Question

   1 points
   The Ocean Energy Systems Technology Initiative (OES) is an intergovernmental collaboration between countries, which operates under the framework established by

   •  a) The World Bank
   •  b) India
   •  c) The International Energy Agency
   •  d) Denmark, Portugal and the United Kingdom
   
   

   Ans: c.

   “The OES, launched in 2001, is an intergovernmental collaboration between countries, which operates under framework established by the International Energy Agency.”

   http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=134427

3. 3. Question

   1 points
   Energy can be harnessed from ocean renewable resources. These ocean renewable resources include

   1. Temperature gradient
   2. Currents
   3. Salinity gradient

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1,2 and 3
   •  b) 2 and 3 Only
   •  c) 1 and 3 Only
   •  d) 3 Only
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: a.

   “The OES brings together countries to advance research, development and demonstration of conversion technologies to harness energy from all forms of ocean renewable resources, such as tides, waves, currents, temperature gradient (ocean thermal energy conversion and submarine geothermal energy)and salinity gradient for electricity generation, as well as for other uses, such as desalination, through international cooperation and information exchange.”

4. 4. Question

   1 points
   Ocean Thermal Energy plants can operate if the temperature difference between the water at the surface and water at depths up to

   •  a) 5 kilometres (km) is 20°C or more
   •  b) 2 km is 20°C or less
   •  c) 5 km is 20°C or less
   •  d) 2 km is 20°C or more
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   “Tropical countries have high sea surface temperatures and hence Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) is a good option for countries like India. NIOT, an autonomous research institute under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, is working in the area of ocean energy and desalination.”

   Page 251, Science Textbook For Class X, NCERT

   http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=134449

5. 5. Question

   1 points
   Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty – as mentioned in the Indian Constitution – of every citizen of India?

   •  a) To render national service when called upon to do so
   •  b) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures
   •  c) To promote civic sense and participation in democratic processes
   •  d) To safeguard public property
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: c.

   “The 2014 judgment enshrines the concept of Article 51A (g) and (h) of the Constitution. There cannot be a scintilla of doubt that the Constitution is an organic and compassionate document. We are unimpressed… and do not alter our stay order,” Justice Misra held, adding Pongal will happen even without jallikattu.

   http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-international/sc-refuses-to-lift-stay-on-jallikattu/article8104010.ece

6. 6. Question

   1 points
   The Gulf of Sirte opens out to the

   •  a) Red Sea
   •  b) Aegean Sea
   •  c) Mediterranean Sea
   •  d) Black Sea
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: c.

   Gulf of Sidra or the Gulf of Sirte is an arm of the Mediterranean Sea, indenting the Libyan coast of northern Africa.

   

7. 7. Question

   1 points
   Which of the following pairs with regard to the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution is/are correctly matched?

   1. Entry 28 List II – Markets and Fairs
   2. Entry 33 List II – Theatres and dramatic performances; sports, entertainments and amusements
   3. Entry 17 List III – Prevention of cruelty to animals

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 and 2 Only
   •  b) 2 and 3 Only
   •  c) 1 and 3 Only
   •  d) 1,2 and 3
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   Seventh Schedule

   http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/tn-can-issue-ordinance/article8105314.ece

   —

   http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/ordinance-on-jallikattu-may-embarrass-tn-govt/article8105138.ece

8. 8. Question

   1 points
   With reference to the new Defense Procurement Policy, which of the following statements is/areincorrect?

   1. Only those deals which are worth over Rupees 2,000 crore will have an offset obligation
   2. Under a new category of acquisition termed ‘Buy Indian’, equipment only with a minimum of 40% indigenous components will be considered

   Select the correct answer using codes given below:

   •  a) 1 Only
   •  b) 2 Only
   •  c) Both 1 and 2
   •  d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Incorrect 
   

   Ans: d.

   “Under a new category of acquisition termed ‘Buy Indian’ or ‘Indigenous Design Development and Manufacturing’, domestically designed equipment with 40 per cent indigenous components or foreign-designed equipment with 60 per cent local components will be considered.”

   “The new DPP has significantly increased the offset threshold for foreign contracts from Rs. 300 crore to Rs. 2,000 crore (with 30 per cent of the contract value to be procured from within India), while it has certain provisions for encouraging Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.”

   http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/defence-procurement-procedure-incremental-steps-not-enough/article8102901.ece